Share your ROUTE v2.0 Experience

@Alright @doka

Thank you for the correction.

Heads up.. see below questions that appeared on test that a friend got today:

Refer to the exhibit. After configuring GRE between two routers running OSPF that are connected to each other via a WAN link, a network engineer notices that the two routers cannot establish the GRE tunnel to begin the exchange of routing updates. What is the reason for this?

A. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 47.
B. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking UDP 57.
C. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking TCP 47.
D. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 57.

Answer: A

Other than a working EIGRP configuration, which option must be the same on all routers for EIGRP authentication key role over to work correctly?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. Password
D. Time

Answer: D

Which SNMP verification command shows the encryption and authentication protocols that are used in SNMPv3?
A. show snmp view
B. show snmp
C. show snmp user
D. show snmp group

Answer: C

What is EIGRP Summary Route Administrative Distance?
A. 90
B. 170
C. 5
D. 110

Answer: C

Refer to the following configuration command.
router(conttg)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 1 72.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8 8:80
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172 16 10 8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 1 72 16 10 8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172 1 6 10 8 8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8 80

Answer: D

A Network engineer wants to configure logging to compile and send information to an external server. Which type of logging must be configured?
A. Terminal
B. Syslog
C. Buffer
D. Console

Answer: B

More to come …

The DMVPN NAT question has options on HUB behind nat device/ public nat device and spoke to spoke using pat/nat, spoke behind nat device..

Ipv6 dhcp is about a customer asking for support using 004:006 something of that sort.

Which two OSPF router types can perform summarize in an OSPF network? (Choose two)
A. summary router
B. area border router
C. autonomous system boundary router
D. internal router
E. backbone router

Answer: B,C

In which two ways can split horizon issues be overcome in a Frame Relay network environment? (choose two.)

A. Configuring one physical serial interface with Frame Relay to various remote sites.
B. Configure a loopback interface with Frame Relay to various remote sites.
C. Configuring multiple subinterfaces on a single physical interface to various remote sites.
D. Enabling split horizon.
E. Disabling split horizon

Answer: C,E

Which two features does RADIUS combine? (choose two)
A. Telnet
B. Accouting
C. SSH
D. Authenticaiton
E. Authorization

Answer: D,E

During which DMVPN phase is spoke-to-spoke communication enabled?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 6
C. Phase 5
D. Phase 2
E. Phase 4

Answer: D

Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)

A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations

Answer: A,B,C

Which three NTP operating modes must the trusted-Key command be configured on for authentication to operate properly? (Choose Three)

A. interface
B. client
C. peer
D. server
E. broadcast

Answer: B,D,E

Which two statements about Frame Relay LMI autosense are true on a Router? (Choose two)
A. It requires the LMI type to be explicitly configured.
B. It operates on Frame Relay DTE interfaces.
C. It operates on Frame Relay DCE interfaces.
D. It operates when the line is up by the line protocol is down.
E. It requires the line protocol to be up.

Answer: B,D

What is the primary service that is provided when you implement Cisco Easy Virtual Network?
A. It requires and enhances the use of VRF-Lite.
B. It reduces the need for common services separation.
C. It allows for traffic separation and improved network efficiency.
D. It introduces multi-VRF and label-prone network segmentation.

Answer: C

Other than a working EIGRP configuration, which option must be the same on all routers for EIGRP authentication key role over to work correctly?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. Password
D. Time
Answer: D

I think, the correct answer is C
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/network-infrastructure-documents/configuring-eigrp-authentication/ta-p/3132683
Accept-lifetime and Send-lifetime are optionaly to be configure
Password = key-string

Which type of Netflow information is displayed when the show ip flow export command is executed?
A. local status and statistics
B. export interface configurations
C. sent status and statistics
D. top talkers

Answer: D

Question similar to this one:

What does the show ip route vrf CISCO command display?
A. directly connected routes for VRF CISCO.
B. the routing table for VRF CISCO.
C. the global routing table.
D. all routing tables that start with VRF CISCO.
E. the route distinguisher for VRF CISCO

Which access list entry checks for an ACK within a packet header?
A. access-list 49 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack
B. access-list 49 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack
C. access-list 149 permit tcp any any eq 21 established
D. access-list 49 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

Answer: C

Same question but reversed:

Which two protocols can cause TCP starvation? (Choose two)

A. TFTP
B. SNMP

Considering the IPv6 address independence requirements, which process do you avoid when you use NPTv6 for translation?
A. rewriting of higher layer information
B. checksum verification
C. ipv6 duplication and conservation
D. IPSEC AH header modification

Answer: A

RIPng question. Cannot receive updates. Why?
A. Firewall Port block UDP 520
B. Firewall Port block TCP 520
C. Firewall Port block UDP 521
D. Firewall Port block TCP 521

Answer: C

What is the default authentication in RIPv2 when authentication is enabled
A. SHA1 authentication
B. Enable password authentication
C. Plain text authentication
D. MD5 authentication

Answer: C

19. Which two tasks does a DHCP relay agent perform? (Choose two)
A. It forwards DHCPHELLO and DHCPREQUEST messages to the DHCP server
B. It forwards DCHPREQUEST and DHCPACK messages to the DHCP server
C. It forwards DHCPOFFER and DHCPCOMPLETE messages to the DHCP server
D. It forwards DHCPDISCOVER and DHCPREQUEST messages to the DHCP server
E. It forwards DHCPOFFER and DHCPACK messages to the DCHP server

Answer: D, E

For CCNA Lessons You can Like ipcisco page on face..!
Every day, network lesson shares will remind you protocols and configurations…!

@Doka password was not an option sorry. Forgot to remove

@Mario

Which type of Netflow information is displayed when the show ip flow export command is executed?
A. local status and statistics
B. export interface configurations
C. sent status and statistics
D. top talkers
Answer: D

I think the answer is A.

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_3t/netflow/command/reference/nfl_a1gt_ps5207_TSD_Products_Command_Reference_Chapter.html#wp1188401

The following is sample output from the show ip flow export command:
Router# show ip flow export

Flow export v5 is enabled for main cache
Exporting flows to 10.51.12.4 (9991) 10.1.97.50 (9111)
Exporting using source IP address 10.1.97.17
Version 5 flow records
11 flows exported in 8 udp datagrams
0 flows failed due to lack of export packet
0 export packets were sent up to process level
0 export packets were dropped due to no fib
0 export packets were dropped due to adjacency issues
0 export packets were dropped due to fragmentation failures
0 export packets were dropped due to encapsulation fixup failures
0 export packets were dropped enqueuing for the RP
0 export packets were dropped due to IPC rate limiting
0 export packets were dropped due to output drops

@Mario

What does the show ip route vrf CISCO command display?
A. directly connected routes for VRF CISCO.
B. the routing table for VRF CISCO.
C. the global routing table.
D. all routing tables that start with VRF CISCO.
E. the route distinguisher for VRF CISCO.

The answer is missing but I think it is B.

Each VRF maintains its own IP routing table. Therefore, to view the contents of a specific VRF’s IP routing table, you can use the show ip route vrf vrf-name command.

@Mario

So you are stating that option C from the EIGRP Authentication question should be removed correct?

Thus it should be:

Other than a working EIGRP configuration, which option must be the same on all routers for EIGRP authentication key role over to work correctly?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C.
D. Time
Answer: D

@SYN

What does the show ip route vrf CISCO command display?
A. directly connected routes for VRF CISCO.
B. the routing table for VRF CISCO.
C. the global routing table.
D. all routing tables that start with VRF CISCO.
E. the route distinguisher for VRF CISCO.

This question is B

Which three NTP operating modes must the trusted-Key command be configured on for authentication to operate properly? (Choose Three)
A. interface
B. client
C. peer
D. server
E. broadcast
Answer: B,D,E

Just came across this question on Kikavich’s guide and checked another and the options listed are B, C, and E.

Client/Server Mode Configuring an association in client mode, usually indicated by a server declaration in the configuration file, indicates that one wishes to obtain time from the remote server, but that one is not willing to provide time to the remote server.

Symmetric Active/Passive Mode (Peer) A peer is configured in symmetric active mode by using the peer command and specifying the DNS name or address of the other peer. The other peer is also configured in symmetric active mode in this way. Note: If the other peer is not specifically configured in this way, a symmetric passive association is activated upon arrival of a symmetric active message. Since an intruder can impersonate a symmetric active peer and inject false time values, symmetric mode should always be authenticated.

Broadcast and/or Multicast Mode Broadcast mode is intended for configurations involving one or a few servers and a potentially large client population. A broadcast server is configured using the broadcast command and a local subnet address. A broadcast client is configured using the broadcastclient command, allowing the broadcast client to respond to broadcast messages received on any interface. Since an intruder can impersonate a broadcast server and inject false time values, this mode should always be authenticated.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/availability/high-availability/19643-ntpm.html

Just want to make sure we have the correct answer……..and I test Wednesday.

question on AAA local: MC was something about its checked before Radius, checked before tacacs and some other options. I am taking it on Friday so, @Syn if you get the newer questions when you get to the your test, please share.

Another question regarding IPV6: communication between local sites and not accessible from the outside , what addresses to use FE08, FF08, FC07

If device R1 has 1-Gigabit and 10-Gigabit Ethernet interfaces, which command do you enter so that it takes full advantage of OSPF costs ?
a. R1(config-router)#auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000
b. R1(config-router)#auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000000000
c. R1(config-if)# ip ospf cost 10000000000
d. R1(config-if)# ip ospf cost 10000
e. R1(config-route-map)#set metric 10000
f. R1(config-route-map)#set metric 10000000000

Please explain why we choose “D”

@phucc

Answer is “A” since reference bw is in mbps so 10000mbps = 10gb

Another question to check hop-by-hop response time

Answer: ICMP path echo

@Mario

Sure thing. I am nervous about this one. I am noticing a lot of new questions that I haven’t seen before in Kikavich’s All in One June v4 update guide. I am quizzing myself on it as we speak……uhhh type.

@Phucc

The command to change the bandwidth in OSPF is auto-cost reference-bandwidth.

Question 171 on kikavich came out too.

Questions 52,82,90,105,135,138,141,148,152,166,167, 168

Question about enable password set what will override it, enable secret password etc

Kikavich D & D – 1, 5, 16, 20, 31

Labs – eigrp stub, eigrp/ospf redistribution, ospf sim

@Syn I think getting the labs done correctly, D & D and kikavich questions you will probably pass above 790. My friend barely made it. That is why I am also prepping for it

@Mario

A pass is a pass. As long as I am 790 and above is all that matters. I may push the test back a day. I should be fairly solid on the DnD. Still need to do a little more work on the Labs. I upgraded my GNS3 to 2.1.6 and couldn’t access my labs. I uninstalled and went back to 2.1.4 but my labs were messed up so I had to redo some of them. Need to practice Virtual Link and OSPF/EIGRP Route Redistribution more.

@Mario @Luigi

It dawned on me earlier that I was talking to Mario and Luigi. Do y’all know each other or that a total coincidence that y’all chose those names?

@Mario
Are you pertaining to Question 68:
A network engineer recently deployed Easy Virtual Networking in the enterprise network.
Which feature improves shared services support?
A. route replication
B. edge interfacing
C. tunnel feedback.
D. route distinguishers

I mean Question 168*

@syn no, i don’t know Luigi lol.. it’s probably a wise @@ lol.. you’ll probably going to see toad next or wario lol..

@123 question 168 is correct.

did not pass with 768 fml

@mario thanks for sharing all the question which came in the exams.
When are you planing to take the exam ??

@stub i’m thinking of taking the test thursday or friday.

@fml did you see the questions I added in the thread? Did you see the same questions?

Jazzy 477 + Kikavich 135 + Dexter 94 = up to 809 if u perfect labs & DND

most Q on mine 2 incl Q about ospf cost, tacacs local command, MPP, copp
, bgp lab

@McPhail are you really sure the dumps are valid ?? and had the question changed as of everyone above where getting 60Q and you got 53Q ??
Please let us know as 100s of student depend on the comments we mention.
thank you.

Anyone posting 53Q or paid dumps is a scammer and should be completely ignored

HELLO EVERYONE I HAVE MADE A LIST OF ALL THE QUESTION MENTION ON THIS COMMENT SECTION. SO ALL THE PEOPLE WHO HAVE GIVEN AND PASSED OR FAILED THE EXAM NOTICE ANY OF THIS QUESTION PLEASE MENTION HERE ONLY THE QUESTION NUMBER SO THAT IT WILL BE A LOT EASY FOR EVERYONE TO LOOK OVER STUDY AND PASS THIS TIME. I HOPE EVERYONE PASS THE EXAM IN ONE GO.
BEST OF LUCK…!!!

1. Which BGP option is required when load sharing over multiple equal-bandwidth parallel from a single CE router to a single ISP router over eBGP?
A. eBGP Multipath
B. eBGP Multihop
C. BGP Synchronization
D. Public AS numbers

2. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring GRE between two routers running OSPF that are connected to each other via a WAN link, a network engineer notices that the two routers cannot establish the GRE tunnel to begin the exchange of routing updates. What is the reason for this?
A. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 47.
B. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking UDP 57.
C. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking TCP 47.
D. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 57.
Answer: A

3. Other than a working EIGRP configuration, which option must be the same on all routers for EIGRP authentication key role over to work correctly?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. Password
D. Time
Answer: D

4. Which SNMP verification command shows the encryption and authentication protocols that are used in SNMPv3?
A. show snmp view
B. show snmp
C. show snmp user
D. show snmp group
Answer: C

5. What is EIGRP Summary Route Administrative Distance?
A. 90
B. 170
C. 5
D. 110
Answer: C

6. Refer to the following configuration command.
router(conttg)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 1 72.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8 8:80
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172 16 10 8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 1 72 16 10 8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172 1 6 10 8 8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8 80
Answer: D

7. A Network engineer wants to configure logging to compile and send information to an external server. Which type of logging must be configured?
A. Terminal
B. Syslog
C. Buffer
D. Console
Answer: B

8. Which two OSPF router types can perform summarize in an OSPF network? (Choose two)
A. summary router
B. area border router
C. autonomous system boundary router
D. internal router
E. backbone router
Answer: B,C

9. In which two ways can split horizon issues be overcome in a Frame Relay network environment? (choose two.)
A. Configuring one physical serial interface with Frame Relay to various remote sites.
B. Configure a loopback interface with Frame Relay to various remote sites.
C. Configuring multiple subinterfaces on a single physical interface to various remote sites.
D. Enabling split horizon.
E. Disabling split horizon
Answer: C,E

10. Which two features does RADIUS combine? (choose two)
A. Telnet
B. Accouting
C. SSH
D. Authenticaiton
E. Authorization
Answer: D,E

11. During which DMVPN phase is spoke-to-spoke communication enabled?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 6
C. Phase 5
D. Phase 2
E. Phase 4
Answer: D

12. Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations
Answer: A,B,C

13. Which three NTP operating modes must the trusted-Key command be configured on for authentication to operate properly? (Choose Three)
A. interface
B. client
C. peer
D. server
E. broadcast
Answer: B,D,E

14. Which two statements about Frame Relay LMI autosense are true on a Router? (Choose two)
A. It requires the LMI type to be explicitly configured.
B. It operates on Frame Relay DTE interfaces.
C. It operates on Frame Relay DCE interfaces.
D. It operates when the line is up by the line protocol is down.
E. It requires the line protocol to be up.
Answer: B,D

15. What is the primary service that is provided when you implement Cisco Easy Virtual Network?
A. It requires and enhances the use of VRF-Lite.
B. It reduces the need for common services separation.
C. It allows for traffic separation and improved network efficiency.
D. It introduces multi-VRF and label-prone network segmentation.
Answer: C

16. Which type of Netflow information is displayed when the show ip flow export command is executed?
A. local status and statistics
B. export interface configurations
C. sent status and statistics
D. top talkers
Answer: D

Question similar to this one:
17. What does the show ip route vrf CISCO command display?
A. directly connected routes for VRF CISCO.
B. the routing table for VRF CISCO.
C. the global routing table.
D. all routing tables that start with VRF CISCO.
E. the route distinguisher for VRF CISCO

18. Which access list entry checks for an ACK within a packet header?
A. access-list 49 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack
B. access-list 49 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack
C. access-list 149 permit tcp any any eq 21 established
D. access-list 49 permit tcp any any eq 21 established
Answer: C

Same question but reversed:
19. Which two protocols can cause TCP starvation? (Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. SNMP
C.SMTP
D.HTTPs
E.FTP
Answer: A&B

20. Considering the IPv6 address independence requirements, which process do you avoid when you use NPTv6 for translation?
A. rewriting of higher layer information
B. checksum verification
C. ipv6 duplication and conservation
D. IPSEC AH header modification
Answer: A

21. RIPng question. Cannot receive updates. Why?
A. Firewall Port block UDP 520
B. Firewall Port block TCP 520
C. Firewall Port block UDP 521
D. Firewall Port block TCP 521
Answer: C

22. What is the default authentication in RIPv2 when authentication is enabled
A. SHA1 authentication
B. Enable password authentication
C. Plain text authentication
D. MD5 authentication
Answer: C

23. Which two tasks does a DHCP relay agent perform? (Choose two)
A. It forwards DHCPHELLO and DHCPREQUEST messages to the DHCP server
B. It forwards DCHPREQUEST and DHCPACK messages to the DHCP server
C. It forwards DHCPOFFER and DHCPCOMPLETE messages to the DHCP server
D. It forwards DHCPDISCOVER and DHCPREQUEST messages to the DHCP server
E. It forwards DHCPOFFER and DHCPACK messages to the DCHP server
Answer: D, E

24. Where must a network engineer configure the ip helper-address command on a router
a. On the interface that will receive the broadcasts
b. On the DHCP configuration
c. the interface that is closed to the destination DHCP server
d. on the global configuration mode
Answer : A

25. Which feature can be used to reduce the number of ICMP unreachable message egressing a router
a. uRPF
b. ICMP rate-limiting(upendra)
c. ip unreachables command
d. Asymmetric routing
Answer :B

26. What happens when a router receives a route with an administrative distance of 255
a. The router installs the route as the most preferred path in the routing table.
b. The router installs the route as the least preferred path in the routing table
c. The router becomes the feasible successor for the route
d. The router is unable to install the route into the routing table
Answer :D

27. A network access serve using TACACAS+ for AAA operations receives an error message from the TACACS+ server. which action does the network access server take next ?
a. It attempts to authenticate the user against RADIUS
b. It restarts and attempts to reconnect to the TACACS+ server
c. It rejects the user access request the
d. It checks the method list for an additional AAA option
Answer :C

28. which purpose of the AAA accounting feature is true when you use TACACS+ authentication ?
a. It prompts users to change their passwords when they expire
b. it saves a timestamped record of user activity
c. it controls the activities that the user is permitted to perform
d. it verifies the user identity.
Answer:B

29. Which command configure a default authentication list that uses a local database and a case-insensitive username ?
a. aaa authentication exec CONSOLE group local-case if authenticated
b. aaa authentication login CONSOLE group local
c. aaa authentication login default group local
d. aaa authentication exec default group local-case
Answer:C

30. Which two mask you perform to enable a point-to-point Frame Relay connection ?
a. Configure the encapsulation type
b. Disable inverse ARP
c. Enable inverse ARP
d. Configure static address mapping
Answer:A

31. If device R1 has 1-Gigabit and 10-Gigabit Ethernet interfaces, which command do you enter so that it takes full advantage of OSPF costs ?
a. R1(config-router)#auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000
b. R1(config-router)#auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000000000
c. R1(config-if)# ip ospf cost 10000000000
d. R1(config-if)# ip ospf cost 10000
e. R1(config-route-map)#set metric 10000
f. R1(config-route-map)#set metric 10000000000
Answer:A

32. In which two areas does OSPF send a summary route by default ?
a. NSSA
b. Backbone
c. Totally stubby
d. Stub
e. Normal
Answer :C&D

33. Which LAN feature enables a default gateway to inform its end devices when a better path to a destination is available ?
a. HSRP
b. ICMP unreachable messages
c. ICMP redirects
d. Proxy ARP
Answer :C

34. Which three methods can a network engineer use to fix a metric based routing loop in the network.
a. Implement offset lists at network boundaries
b. Filter routes manually using distribute lists
c. Filter routes manually using prefix lists
d. Implement proper network summarisation on key routing points
e. Filter routes based on tags
f. Utilise root database filters

35. Which two features ara added in MSCHAP Version 2
a. Backwards-compatibility with MSCHAP version 1
b. Using the MD5 hash for stronger security
c. Ability to change an expired password
d. using 3 way handshakes for authentication
e. mutual authentication between peers

36. What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of the perimeter router accomplish.
# access-list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255.255 any log
# access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log
# access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any log
# access-list 101 permit ip any any
#interface fastEthernet 1/10
#ip access-group 101 in
a. It filter incoming traffic from private address in order to prevent spoofing and logs any intrusion attempts
b. It prevents private internal address to be accessed directly from outside
c. It filters incoming traffic from private address ranges 10.0.0.0-10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255, 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts
d. It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and logs any exit to the internet

37. What is the default authentication in RIPv2 when authentication is enabled
a. SHA1 authentication
b. Enable password authentication
c. Plaintext authentication
d. MD5 authentication

38. Which command sequence can you enter on a router to configure Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding in loose mode
a. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0
Ip verify unicast source reachable-via any
b. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0
Ip verify unicast source reachable-via loose
c. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0
Ip verify unicast source reachable-via all
d. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0
Ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx

39. What is a function of NPTv6?
A. It interferes with encryption of the full IP payload.
B. It maintains a per-node state.
C. It is checksum-neutral.
D. It rewrites transport layer headers.
Correct Answer: C

40. An engineer executes the ip flow ingress command in interface configuration mode. What is the result of this action?
A. It enables the collection of IP flow samples arriving to the interface.
B. It enables the collection of IP flow samples leaving the interface.
C. It enables IP flow while disabling IP CEF on the interface.
D. It enables IP flow collection on the physical interface and its subinterfaces.
Correct Answer: A

41. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring GRE between two routers running OSPF that are connected to each other via a WAN link, a network engineer notices that the two routers cannot establish the GRE tunnel to begin the exchange of routing updates. What is the reason for this?
A. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 47. B. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking UDP 57.
C. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking TCP 47.
D. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 57.
Correct Answer: A

42. What is the purpose of the route-target command?
A. It extends the IP address to identify which VRF instance it belongs to.
B. It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance IGP routing protocol capabilities.
C. It manages the import and export of routes between two or more VRF instances.
D. It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance EGP routing protocol capabilities.
Correct Answer: C

43. Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8 8:80
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8 8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8 80
Correct Answer: D

44. Other than a working EIGRP configuration, which option must be the same on all routers for EIGRP authentication key role over to work correctly?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. Passwords
D. Time
Correct Answer: D

45. In which two ways can split horizon issues be overcome in a Frame Relay network environment? (choose two)
A. Configuring one physical serial interface with Frame Relay to various remote sites.
B. Configure a loopback interface with Frame Relay to various remote sites.
C. Configuring multiple subinterfaces on a single physical interface to various remote sites.
D. Enabling split horizon. E. Disabling split horizon.
Correct Answer: CE

46. A network administrator notices that the BGP state drops and logs are generated for missing BGP hello keepalives. What is the potential problem?
A. Incorrect neighbor options
B. Hello timer mismatch
C. BGP path MTU enabled
D. MTU mismatch
Correct Answer: D

47. Which IP SLA operation can be used to measure round-trip delay for the full path and hop-by-hop round-trip delay on the network?
A. HTTP
B. ICMP path echo
C. TCP connect
D. ICMP echo
Correct Answer: B

48. In a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay topology, which two methods ensure that all routing updates are received by all EIGRP routers within the Frame Relay
network? (Choose Two)
A. Use statically defined EIGRP neighbors on the hub site.
B. Create separate address families.
C. Disable split horizon.
D. Use sub interfaces.
E. Disable EIGRP auto summary.
Correct Answer: CD

49. A network engineer applies the command ip tcp adjust-mss under interface configuration mode. What is the result?
A. The probability of SYN packet truncation is increased.
B. The UDP session is inversely affected.
C. The probability of dropped or segmented TCP packets is decreased.
D. The optimum MTU value for the interface is set.
Correct Answer: C

50. A network engineer recently deployed Easy Virtual Networking in the enterprise network. Which feature improves shared services support?
A. route replication
B. edge interfacing
C. tunnel feedback.
D. route distinguishers
Correct Answer: A

51. Refer to Exibit.
What is indicated by the show ip cef command for an address?
A. CEF is unable to get routing information for this route.
B. CEF cannot switch packet for this route and passes it to the next best switching method.
C. A valid entry and is pointed to hardware based forwarding.
D. CEF cannot switch packet for this route and drops it.
Correct Answer: B

@stub all the questions i posted came out on the test today per my friend. He saw 15 new questions which he thought were pulled from CCNA questions.

The nat over DMVPN you will definitely get. That has been mentioned before on the forum.

With the list of questions posted, d & d, labs you should do good. Try to focus on VPN that is what he told me because that is where he got low score..

@mario
SO all the 51 question above should be valid to pass the exams.

@stub for the ones I posted yes. 24-31 was not seen per my friend.

@ stub also on the eigrp/ospf redistribute question. It’s the same as here but difference is that the link between router 3 and 2 is a fastethernet. So metric is as follows: 10000 10 255 1 1500

You will need to add the distance eigrp 123 90 105 so that router 1 goes to 172.16.100.1 on router 4 via router 3’s LAN connect instead of router 2’s serial. Once that is done on router 2, if you do a traceroute from router 1, you will notice that hops it takes to reach 172.16.100.1.

@mario thanx

could you please post the list of question you posted so that it will be easy as i have exam tommrow. And please ask your friens about what all DND where asked will of great help

@Stub already posted but here you go:

Question 171 on kikavich came out too.
Questions 52,82,90,105,135,138,141,148,152,166,167, 168
Question about enable password set what will override it, enable secret password etc
Kikavich D & D – 1, 5, 16, 20, 31
Labs – eigrp stub, eigrp/ospf redistribution, ospf sim

@mario All this question are there in the 51q above

@mario All this question are there in the 51q above expect dnd

@stub

There is a question around EVN that talks about the following:

Cisco EVN makes this possible through a service called route replication . The route replication service allows IP routes known to one virtual network to be known to other virtual networks. For example: DNS, WWW, SMTP etc need to be accessed by other VRF networks.

Fell just before the finishing line.
Not to blame anyone.
60 questions, 120 mins.
Saw around 15 new questions. Atleast I didn’t cover them in 477q, kikavich or jazzy.
I would say dumps aren’t invalid but not sufficient. I know geniuses are everywhere.
But good learning for me. Learning never expires. Boosting myself again. It’s time to challenge myself more.
Thank you everyone.

@uRFP sorry to hear about that. do you remember any of the question that you had or DNDs anything you remember pls share as it will be of great help. good luck for your next exam

I did the exam and passed.
I had a question about the port number for ripng.
How to block ripng

@Stub and @Mario thanks for taking out time to post the questions in the comment section but i noticed most of the “NEW” questions you posted here are found in Jazzy dumps and the mcq posted by digitaltut. Correct me if i am wrong though

can someone please explain whats MPP CPP ? drag n drop
and of possible share here…

@ican22 the main purpose of the question to post in in the comment section is to identify if the same question where asked in the new exam if so it makes everyone’s life easy to pass.